CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Dumps Free 2024By itexambyte.com / 24 February 2024 Created by itexambyte.com CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Questions DomainWeightage %Domain 1: General Security Concepts12%Domain 2: Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations22%Domain 3: Security Architecture18%Domain 4: Security Operations28%Domain 5: Security Program Management and Oversight20%Total100% 1 / 90 1. A company's change management procedure requires that any modifications to the IT infrastructure undergo a review process. Before final approval, which document should primarily guide the decision on whether the change is in line with organizational security policies and standards? A) Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) document B) Information Security Policies C) Business Continuity Plan (BCP) D) Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) 2 / 90 2. A technology company has created a new algorithm that significantly improves data encryption. What type of Intellectual Property protection can the company seek for its algorithm? A) Copyright B) Trademark C) Patent D) Trade Secret 3 / 90 3. A company requires its users to create complex passwords containing at least 12 characters, including upper and lower case letters, numbers, and symbols. Additionally, the company adds a random string of characters to each password before hashing it. Which term best describes this additional security measure? A) Brute force protection B) Dictionary protection C) Hashing algorithm D) Salting 4 / 90 4. Which of the following hardware issues arises when using products that are no longer manufactured or supported, but are still functional? A) End-of-life vulnerability B) Hardware tampering C) Legacy vulnerability D) Operational vulnerability 5 / 90 5. Emily wants to securely send a confidential document to Bob over an insecure channel. She decides to use public-key cryptography to protect the document during transmission. Emily generates a key pair consisting of a public key and a private key. She sends her public key to Bob, who will use it to encrypt the document before sending it back to Emily. Upon receiving the encrypted document, Emily will use her private key to decrypt it.Now, let's consider the following situation:After receiving Emily's public key, Bob mistakenly encrypts the document with his own public key instead of using Emily's public key. Bob then sends the encrypted document to Emily. When Emily tries to decrypt the document using her private key, she encounters an issue.Given this scenario, answer the following question:What will be the outcome when Emily attempts to decrypt the document encrypted with Bob's public key using her private key? A) The document will decrypt successfully, and Emily will be able to read its contents. B) The decryption will partially succeed, revealing only a portion of the document's content. C) The decryption will result in an error, rendering the document unreadable. D) The decryption will fail, as Emily's private key cannot decrypt a document encrypted with a different public key. 6 / 90 6. Leon, a network engineer, is analyzing logs from the company's main database server. After examining the data, he notices that the backup process runs every night at 3 AM and generates logs consistently. However, during the review of last week's logs, Leon identifies a notable absence of logs from two specific nights. Upon delving deeper into the matter, Leon uncovers the creation of a new, unauthorized user account on one of those missing log nights. What conclusions can Leon reasonably draw from these findings? A) Due to low storage, the backup process on those nights was skipped accidentally by the database server. B) It's possible that the IT team created the new account for a new employee but failed to inform Leon about it. C) The IT department might have paused the backup process on those nights for maintenance purposes. D) Someone, potentially an attacker, might have successfully accessed the system, created the unauthorized account and deliberately removed the logs. 7 / 90 7. In which requirement of PCI DSS would you find guidelines related to penetration testing and segmentation controls? A) Requirement 1: Install and maintain a firewall configuration to protect cardholder data B) Requirement 5: Protect all systems against malware and regularly update anti-virus software or programs C) Requirement 12: Maintain a policy that addresses information security for all personnel D) Requirement 11: Regularly test security systems and processes 8 / 90 8. What is the primary purpose of quarantining a system during a cybersecurity incident? A) To ensure no one can access the system, including authorized users B) To allow the system to continue operating without interruptions C) To prevent the further spread of malware or unauthorized activities D) To encrypt all data stored on the system for added security 9 / 90 9. An attacker gains access to a company's network and steals a list of user accounts and corresponding passwords. The attacker then uses the stolen data to gain access to other services that use the same password. What type of password attack is this? A) Brute-Force password attack B) Dictionary attack C) Password spraying attack D) Credential stuffing attack 10 / 90 10. As an IT manager, you've been tasked with ensuring that electronic transactions between suppliers and your company cannot later be denied by either party. Which of the following security goals and concepts should you prioritize to meet this requirement? A) Availability B) Integrity C) Non-repudiation D) Confidentiality 11 / 90 11. A startup company wants to deploy a new application without managing servers, operating systems, or runtime environments. They are looking for a model that allows them to focus solely on writing and deploying code. Which service model aligns with their requirement? A) Serverless B) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) C) Software as a Service (SaaS) D) Platform as a Service (PaaS) 12 / 90 12. A financial institution processes thousands of transactions daily through its online banking platform. The integrity of these transactions is crucial to ensure that funds are transferred accurately and without errors. Which aspect of the CIA triad is most essential in maintaining the accuracy and consistency of these financial transactions? A) Confidentiality B) Integrity C) Availability D) Authorization 13 / 90 13. A company's headquarters are affected by a fire, rendering the building inaccessible for an extended period. Which of the following resilience measures could help the organization ensure continuity of operations? A) Developing a comprehensive incident response plan. B) Implementing a hot site for immediate relocation and continuity of operations. C) Establishing redundant network connections. D) Training employees on first aid and emergency response 14 / 90 14. While testing web applications, you attempt to insert the following test script into the search area on the company’s website:<script>alert(“Testing Testing Testing”)</script>Afterwards, when you press the search button, a pop up box appears on your screen with the text, “Testing Testing Testing.” What vulnerability is detected in the web application here? A) SQL Injection B) Cross-site scripting (XSS) C) Security misconfiguration D) DNS rebinding attack 15 / 90 15. A large corporation uses a firewall system to filter incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined policies. Which layer of the OSI model does the firewall operate on? A) Layer 2 - Data Link Layer B) Layer 4 - Transport Layer C) Layer 3 - Network Layer D) Layer 7 - Application Layer 16 / 90 16. At Indus Academy, Lora has been entrusted with determining the purposes and means of processing personal data for the academy's new marketing campaign. Lora decides what data to collect, how long it will be retained, and with whom it will be shared. Which of the following BEST describes the role Lora is playing? A) Data Processor Role B) Data Custodian Role C) Data Subject Role D) Data Controller Role 17 / 90 17. As part of a business partnership, your company is entering into a collaborative project with another organization that involves sharing sensitive proprietary information. Both parties want to ensure that their confidential data remains protected throughout the duration of the project.What legal instrument can be used to protect the confidentiality of shared information between the two organizations? A) Service Level Agreement (SLA) B) Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) C) Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) D) Data Processing Agreement (DPA) 18 / 90 18. Given the need for resilience and the ability to recover in a security architecture, which of the following devices ensures uninterrupted operation during a power outage? A) Voltage Regulator B) UPS C) Onsite Backup D) Power Strip 19 / 90 19. security team discovers a critical vulnerability in a web application that could lead to unauthorized access. What should be the immediate next step in the vulnerability response process? A) Documenting the vulnerability B) Patching the vulnerability to prevent exploitation C) Conducting further analysis before taking any action D) Prioritize the vulnerability 20 / 90 20. Which of the following statements BEST explains the importance of enforcing baselines when automating and orchestrating secure operations? A) By establishing initial targets for automating threat hunting and penetration testing, baselines decrease reliance on human intervention. B) Standardizing configurations across systems through the enforcement of baselines facilitates efficient automation and mitigates security risks effectively. C) The enforcement of baselines enables nearly complete automation of incident response, reducing the necessity for extensive security and incident response teams. D) Baselines eradicate the requirement for ongoing system monitoring by automating or orchestrating tasks, thereby liberating resources. 21 / 90 21. Which mitigation technique involves closing specific entry and exit points in a system to prevent potential vulnerabilities or unauthorized access? A) Disabling ports B) Monitoring C) Logging D) Patching 22 / 90 22. You receive an email from a well-known charity organization asking for a donation to support a recent natural disaster. The email contains a link to a donation page and urges immediate action. What is the best course of action? A) Verify the legitimacy of the request through another channel before making any donation B) Click the link and make a donation immediately C) Ignore the email and delete it D) Forward the email to your colleagues and encourage them to donate as well 23 / 90 23. Which of the following factors should NOT be considered when establishing Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs) for different business processes? A) Financial costs associated with downtime B) Regulatory compliance requirements C) Technical capabilities of the IT infrastructure D) Customer perception and brand reputation 24 / 90 24. A newly discovered flaw in a software application would be considered as which kind of security vulnerability? A) Unknown vulnerability B) HTTP header injection vulnerability C) Input validation flaw D) Zero-day vulnerability 25 / 90 25. How does Data Loss Prevention (DLP) differ from traditional security measures like firewalls and antivirus software? A) DLP solutions are specifically designed to prevent data loss by monitoring and controlling data transfer B) DLP focuses on monitoring network traffic, while firewalls focus on user authentication C) Antivirus software is more effective in preventing data breaches compared to DLP solutions D) Firewalls are more comprehensive and do not require constant monitoring like DLP solutions 26 / 90 26. Which of the following BEST characterizes an organizational framework that enables independent decision-making in distinct departments or sectors within the company? A) Matrix structure B) Decentralized Governance C) Hierarchical management D) Structure organization 27 / 90 27. A network administrator is tasked with configuring an Access List (ACL) on a router to block all incoming traffic from a specific IP address range. Which of the following commands should be used to achieve this goal? A) deny ip any any B) deny tcp any any C) deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any D) permit ip 10.0.0.0 deny ip 0.255.255.255 28 / 90 28. Crucial Technologies is standing up a new web server. The website hosted on this server is required to be accessed by the general public as part of company operation. To provide security to internal company resources where should the server be placed on the network? A) Extranet B) Intranet C) VLAN D) Screened subnet 29 / 90 29. In a retail environment, customer payment data is transmitted from point-of-sale (POS) terminals to a centralized server for processing. What security measure should be prioritized to protect payment data during transit? A) Using unencrypted communication channels for faster transactions. B) Implementing Transport Layer Security (TLS) encryption for data transmission. C) Storing payment data on the local terminals without transmission. D) Transmitting data over public Wi-Fi networks without encryption. 30 / 90 30. Which of the following strategies is commonly used to reinforce cybersecurity training concepts and promote a culture of security awareness in an organization? A) Issuing disciplinary actions for employees who fall victim to phishing scams B) Providing incentives for employees who complete cybersecurity training modules C) Limiting access to critical systems and data to only a select group of employees D) Conducting regular security awareness campaigns and promoting best practices 31 / 90 31. Which of the following best describes a snapshot in the context of data backups? A) A complete copy of a system's data and configurations at a specific point in time. B) A method that only backs up data that has changed since the last full backup. C) A point-in-time representation of a system's state or data that does not require storing a full copy of the data set. D) The process of duplicating data in real-time to a secondary location for fault tolerance. 32 / 90 32. A software development company is working on a project with a tight deadline. The company wants to ensure that the code changes are integrated and tested quickly to meet the project timeline while maintaining the quality of the deliverables. As a Security Analyst, what strategy would you implement here? A) Manual testing of the code changes after each iteration B) Independent testing by a dedicated QA team C) Automated testing using a continuous integration (CI) server D) Peer reviews and code inspections 33 / 90 33. Which of the following best describes risk transfer in the context of risk management? A) Assuming all identified risks without any mitigation efforts. B) Ignoring risks and their potential impact on the organization. C) Accepting risks without assessing their likelihood or impact. D) Sharing the financial burden of risks with insurance or contractual agreements 34 / 90 34. Which of the following is an aspect of asset management that ensures that each IT asset is clearly associated with a specific individual or department, providing clarity on responsibilities and access rights? A) Acquisition B) Monitoring C) Procurement D) Ownership 35 / 90 35. Running a legacy system with no vendor support increases the risk of security breaches due to unpatched vulnerabilities. A) True B) False 36 / 90 36. Identify the practice that can make mobile devices susceptible to different types of cyber threats. A) Control devices and applications. B) Verify the location of printers before printing sensitive documents. C) Use a public Wi-Fi instead of a cellular data network. D) Deploy anti-malware applications to detect and block malicious applications. 37 / 90 37. A computer system uses a hardware-based security module that securely stores cryptographic keys and certificates. This security module is considered the foundation of trust for the system and ensures the integrity of the boot process. What is this security module commonly referred to as? A) Root of Trust B) Trusted Platform Module (TPM) C) Secure Enclave D) Secure Gateway 38 / 90 38. Which programming languages are more susceptible to buffer overflow vulnerabilities? A) High-level languages like Python and Java B) Scripting languages like JavaScript C) Low-level languages like C and C++ D) Functional languages like Haskell 39 / 90 39. If an IT company's server has an estimated Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) of $2,000 due to an operational failure, and the Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO) of these failures is expected to be 0.5 times per year, what is the Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE)? A) $1,000 B) $100 C) $500 D) $150 40 / 90 40. An employee is leaving a company that handles confidential information. What action should the company take to ensure data sanitization on the employee's devices? A) Doing nothing and assuming the employee will delete the data B) Asking the employee to format the devices before leaving C) Implementing a remote wipe of the employee's devices D) Backing up all data before the employee leaves 41 / 90 41. You are a company considering entering into a strategic partnership with another organization. Before proceeding, you want to ensure that the potential partner has a strong reputation and ethical business practices. Which of the following would be an important aspect to consider during reputational due diligence? A) Reviewing the potential partner's financial statements and performance metrics. B) Assessing the potential partner's compliance with relevant laws and regulations. C) Analyzing the market potential and growth prospects of the potential partner. D) Evaluating the potential partner's product quality and customer satisfaction ratings. 42 / 90 42. A natural gas pipeline company utilizes a SCADA system to monitor pipeline pressure, temperature, and flow rates. In the event of a potential leak detection or intrusion, which aspect of the SCADA system enables automatic responses such as closing valves or activating alarms? A) Security Management B) Performance Optimization C) Control Logic D) Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) 43 / 90 43. A company wants to enhance its cybersecurity measures by deploying a honeypot on its network. They set up a server that mimics a legitimate target system and contains fabricated data to attract potential attackers. The purpose of this honeypot is to deceive and gather information about the attackers' tactics and techniques.An attacker gains unauthorized access to the company's network and encounters the honeypot. The attacker believes they have found a real target system and starts interacting with it.What is the primary objective of using a honeypot in this scenario? A) To block all incoming attacks and prevent unauthorized access to the network. B) To provide a decoy system that diverts attackers' attention from the actual target systems. C) To collect detailed information about the attacker's methods and intentions. D) To actively engage with attackers and retaliate against their actions. 44 / 90 44. A manufacturing company experienced a cybersecurity incident that disrupted production operations and led to financial losses. The incident response team discovered that the incident response plan was outdated and lacked clear roles and responsibilities. What lesson learned should the company emphasize to improve incident response effectiveness? A) Conducting regular tabletop exercises to test the incident response plan. B) Establishing an incident response communication plan with key stakeholders. C) Implementing automated incident detection and response technologies. D) Documenting and updating the incident response plan based on lessons learned. 45 / 90 45. An imposter pretends to be a senior executive at a company and contacts the finance department requesting urgent wire transfers to a specified account. The imposter uses a combination of authority and urgency to pressure the employees into bypassing normal verification procedures. What social engineering technique is evident in this scenario? A) Elicitation B) Pretexting C) Identity theft D) Shoulder surfing 46 / 90 46. Which of the answers listed below refers to security controls designed to deter, detect, and prevent unauthorized access, theft, damage, or destruction of material assets? A) Managerial security controls B) Physical security controls C) Technical security controls D) Operational security controls 47 / 90 47. An IoT-enabled door lock allows users to remotely lock and unlock their doors using a smartphone app. What security measure should be implemented to protect against unauthorized access? A) Enabling biometric authentication for unlocking the door B) Sharing the lock's access credentials with friends and family C) Enabling automatic software updates for the lock D) Use proximity sensor for enabling for unlocking the door 48 / 90 48. A disgruntled employee at a technology company intentionally copies and transfers proprietary source code, product designs, and customer data to a USB drive. The employee plans to sell this information to a competitor. What type of data exfiltration method is being used in this scenario? A) Social engineering attack B) Malware infection C) Insider threat D) Data breach 49 / 90 49. Your company is in the process of expanding its operations into a new country. As the security architect, you are tasked with ensuring compliance with data handling regulations specific to the new location. Which of the following strategies should be your primary focus to maintain adherence to data sovereignty requirements concerning the storage and processing of customer data? A) Encrypt all customer data to ensure its confidentiality, regardless of its geographic location. B) Regularly back up customer data to an offshore data center to ensure its availability. C) Institute robust access controls for all customer data irrespective of its storage location. D) Store and process all customer data within the same country where your customers reside. 50 / 90 50. Your company’s network is configured to always check authentication/authorization each time a user tries to access data. The company is using which security model? A) Intranet B) Zero trust C) VLAN D) Extranet 51 / 90 51. In the context of cybersecurity, what does a "true positive" refer to? A) A security alert that correctly identifies a real security threat B) A security alert that incorrectly identifies a non-existent threat C) Ignoring a valid security alert D) Failing to detect a security threat 52 / 90 52. A small accounting firm wants to enhance its data backup strategy to ensure resilience against potential disasters. Which combination of onsite/offsite backups offers the highest level of redundancy? A) Onsite backups only, stored on a network-attached storage (NAS) device. B) Offsite backups only, hosted on a cloud storage platform. C) Onsite backups coupled with offsite backups at a secure data center. D) Offsite backups replicated to another office location within the same city. 53 / 90 53. A government agency is looking to deploy a security solution that not only monitors network traffic for potential threats but also has the capability to actively block and prevent identified security incidents. Which type of system would be most appropriate for this requirement? A) Intrusion Detection System (IDS) B) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) C) Unified Threat Management (UTM) D) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system 54 / 90 54. A technology company with a highly distributed workforce and a bring-your-own-device (BYOD) policy seeks to implement a solution that can detect and block malicious activities on employee devices accessing the corporate network. Which type of system would be most suitable for achieving this objective? A) Mobile Device Management (MDM) B) Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solution C) Antivirus solution D) Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) 55 / 90 55. A user tries to access a confidential financial report on the company's shared drive. However, the user is denied access and receives an error message stating "Access Denied." Which security mechanism is primarily responsible for this denial? A) Authentication B) Authorization C) Encryption D) Firewall protection 56 / 90 56. A cybersecurity researcher discovers a vulnerability in a virtualization platform that allows a malicious actor to break out of a virtual machine (VM) and gain unauthorized access to the host system. What is this type of security threat known as? A) VM evasion B) VM breakout C) VM escape D) Hypervisor exploit 57 / 90 57. You are the Compliance Officer of a multinational corporation operating in a highly regulated industry. A new set of data privacy regulations has been introduced in the countries where your company operates. What should be your primary focus as the Compliance Officer to ensure the company's adherence to the new data privacy regulations? A) Conduct a comprehensive assessment of the company's current data privacy practices. B) Implement training programs to educate employees on the new data privacy regulations. C) Update the company's policies and procedures to align with the new regulations. D) Establish a reporting mechanism for data privacy incidents and breaches. 58 / 90 58. Your organization has just developed a Playbook to outline detailed procedures for handling suspected data breaches. During a team meeting, you emphasize the importance of team members being able to quickly delineate their roles and responsibilities in the event of a breach. Which section of the Playbook should team members refer to first in order to find this critical information? A) Roles and Responsibilities B) Incident Response Procedures C) Recovery Methods D) Communication Plan 59 / 90 59. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the importance of log aggregation? A) Log aggregation increases the complexity of managing and interpreting security logs. B) Log aggregation aids in maintaining regulatory compliance by keeping a record of events that happened in the system. C) Log aggregation can enhance security by consolidating logs from different sources for easier analysis. D) Log aggregation helps to detect unusual activity or behavior that may indicate a security breach. 60 / 90 60. A healthcare organization has a patient information database containing sensitive personal data, including medical history and treatment plans. The organization wants to ensure that only authorized healthcare professionals can access the database and prevent any unauthorized disclosure of patient information. Which of the following mechanisms would be most effective in achieving this goal? A) Implementing role-based access control (RBAC) B) Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) C) Implementing network segmentation D) Implementing Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) 61 / 90 61. A high-profile government agency experiences a data breach where classified information is stolen and leaked to the public. The attackers demonstrate a deep understanding of the agency's systems and processes, indicating a long-term and well-planned operation. What type of threat is most likely responsible for this breach? A) Cyber espionage B) Hacktivism C) Insider threat D) Cyber terrorism 62 / 90 62. SecureByte Software Development, a renowned company, provides regular software updates to its global customer base. However, the company recently encountered a concerning issue where some customers reported receiving unauthorized and potentially malicious software updates. To address this critical situation and maintain customer trust, SecureByte Software Development is determined to implement a robust security technique that guarantees the authenticity and integrity of its software updates during the delivery process. By doing so, the company aims to safeguard its customers from unauthorized and potentially harmful software, ensuring a secure and reliable software update experience. A) Intrusion Detection System (IDS) B) Multi Factor Authentication C) Code signing D) Use Secure Channel 63 / 90 63. A multinational corporation wants to establish secure communication between its branch offices located in different countries over the public internet. Which type of VPN should the company consider for connecting the branch offices? A) Site-to-Site VPN B) Remote Access VPN C) SSL VPN D) PPTP VPN 64 / 90 64. A software development team is reviewing code for potential vulnerabilities before deployment. Which type of analysis would be most suitable for detecting security issues without executing the code? A) Static analysis B) Dynamic analysis C) Manual code review D) Black box testing 65 / 90 65. An online banking application displays user account details based on an account number provided by the user. The application constructs SQL queries using string concatenation without sanitizing input. What could an attacker potentially do with this vulnerability? A) Execute arbitrary code on the server B) Retrieve sensitive information from the database C) Redirect users to a phishing website D) Bypass authentication mechanisms 66 / 90 66. You are a security engineer at healthcare firm and you discover that an unauthorized device has been connected to the company’s network. As you investigate, you discover that the device was added so the employee could play video games during her breaks. What type of threat actor are you dealing with? A) Shadow IT B) Insider Threat C) Script Kiddies D) Unskilled Actor 67 / 90 67. A small business engages a third-party company to handle its IT infrastructure, including network monitoring, cybersecurity, and cloud services. This arrangement allows the business to focus on its core operations while leveraging the expertise of external specialists. What type of service model is this? A) Software Vendor B) Cloud Service Provider (CSP) C) Platform as a Service (PaaS) D) Managed Services Provider (MSP) 68 / 90 68. Given below are the four key steps of the risk management phase.1. Risk treatment2. Risk tracking and review3. Risk assessment4. Risk identificationWhat is the correct sequence of steps involved in the risk management phase? A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 B) 4 → 3 → 1 → 2 C) 3 → 4 → 2 → 1 D) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4 69 / 90 69. You notice that a colleague has written down their password on a sticky note attached to their computer monitor for easy access. What is the best course of action? A) Inform the colleague about the security risk and offer to help them memorize their password B) Take a picture of the sticky note as evidence and report the incident to the IT department C) Ignore the situation and focus on your own work D) Confront the colleague and ask them to remove the sticky note immediately 70 / 90 70. What type of malware is specifically designed to gain unauthorized access and hide its presence from users and system processes, often while maintaining privileged access to the host system? A) Rootkit B) Spyware C) Ransomware D) Adware 71 / 90 71. Which of the following characteristics of a cloud architecture model describes a model that can quickly recover from failures due to adverse conditions? A) Resilience B) Availability C) Scalability D) Elasticity 72 / 90 72. As a network architect, you have been asked to design a network infrastructure for a financial services provider that requires extremely high levels of security due to the sensitive nature of the data being processed. The client also demands that certain systems must remain operational and isolated even in the event of a catastrophic network failure. Which of the following solutions would BEST meet these requirements? A) Deploying an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) throughout the network B) Implementing an air-gapped network for those critical systems C) Implementing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) for all internal communications D) Creating logical segmentation of the network using VLANs 73 / 90 73. One area of concern for access control is tailgating. Tailgating is a breach of security where an unauthorized person piggybacks their way into a facility when an authorized person gains access with their authorized credentials. Which biometric technology would a company implement to assist in combating this threat? A) Gait analysis B) Voice C) Vein D) Fingerprint 74 / 90 74. How often should employees be required to review and acknowledge the Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)? A) Once at the time of joining the company. B) Annually or upon policy updates. C) Only when there is suspicion of policy violation. D) Never, as it is not necessary for daily operations. 75 / 90 75. A small business uses a third-party email marketing service to send promotional emails to its subscribers. The business wants to improve email deliverability and prevent its emails from being marked as spam by recipient mail servers. Which technology should the business focus on implementing? A) Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC) B) Sender Policy Framework (SPF) C) Content filtering rules D) DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) 76 / 90 76. Which of the following practices makes the Bluetooth-enabled devices of an organization vulnerable to various attacks? A) Use link encryption for all Bluetooth connections. B) Avoid sharing sensitive information over Bluetooth-enabled devices. C) Always grant Bluetooth access permission to applications. D) Change the default settings of the Bluetooth-enabled device to the best security standard. 77 / 90 77. You are the resident IT within your family. While relaxing and enjoying a family Thanksgiving dinner your sweet old Grandmother mentions that Microsoft called her cell phone and helped her with a virus on her computer. You explain to her that Microsoft does not call people directly to help with computer issues and that she was likely targeted by a malicious attacker. You scan her computer for viruses and find several. Your poor sweet old Grandmother was a victim of what type of attack? A) Tailgaiting B) Phonejacking C) Vishing D) Spear phishing 78 / 90 78. An organization is setting up a mail server to handle incoming and outgoing emails. The network administrator needs to open the appropriate ports on the firewall to allow SMTP traffic for sending emails and POP3/IMAP traffic for receiving emails. Which of the following ports is commonly used for SMTP? A) Port 22 B) Port 23 C) Port 25 D) Port 110 79 / 90 79. A manufacturing company is implementing a streamlined offboarding process to enhance security and compliance. What step is crucial to include in the offboarding process to mitigate insider threats and data breaches? A) Conducting an exit interview to gather feedback and identify security concerns. B) Notifying relevant departments to revoke the departing employee's access. C) Collecting all company-issued devices/assets and disabling remote access. D) Archiving the departing employee's email and network files for future reference. 80 / 90 80. A user receives an email with an attachment claiming to be an invoice from an unknown sender. Upon opening the attachment, the user's computer starts behaving strangely, and personal files become inaccessible. Which type of malware is likely responsible for this situation? A) Trojan horse B) Worm C) Ransomware D) Adware 81 / 90 81. In a meeting with the CTO, Alex has asked for guidance on developing the rules of engagement for an upcoming penetration test. The CTO doesn't think they need to create rules of engagement since they are hiring an experienced, well respected company to do the penetration testing. Why is it important for the company to still establish rules of engagement? A) A timeline for conducting the penetration tests needs to be established. B) The total cost of the penetration test needs to be determined. C) The names of all personnel who will participate in the penetration test are required. D) Boundaries and limitations must be defined for the penetration test. 82 / 90 82. WPA2 uses AES for wireless data encryption at which of the following encryption levels? A) 64 bit and CCMP B) 128 bit and CCMP C) 128 bit and TKIP D) 128 bit and CRC 83 / 90 83. An organization needs to secure its internal network from external threats while allowing for more granular control of network traffic. Which type of firewall can provide application-level filtering and deep packet inspection? A) Stateful Firewall B) Packet Filtering Firewall C) Proxy Firewall D) Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) 84 / 90 84. You are reviewing application logs while investigating a suspected breach. Which of the following pieces of information is NOT typically documented in the application log data? A) Server IP address where the application is hosted. B) User IDs related to specific application transactions. C) Timestamps of application activity. D) The physical location of the user accessing the application. 85 / 90 85. You're concerned about email interception and wish to obscure the content of your messages. What strategy should you adopt to obfuscate email content effectively? A) Using strong encryption methods such as PGP or S/MIME for message content. B) Writing messages in a foreign language to deter unauthorized readers. C) Attaching files with strong passwords for recipients to decrypt. D) Using hashing methods such as MD5 to encrypt message. 86 / 90 86. A popular social media platform allows users to sign in to third-party apps using their social media accounts without sharing their login credentials. The platform wants to implement a secure authorization framework that enables users to grant access to their account information to these third-party apps. Which technology would be most suitable for achieving this goal? A) OpenID Connect B) OAuth 2.0 C) SAML D) LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol) 87 / 90 87. A security analyst is reviewing network logs and notices multiple failed login attempts on a user's account from a foreign IP address. The source IP is repeatedly attempting to authenticate using different password combinations from a list found on a recent dark web posting. The analyst should implement which of the following to BEST mitigate this type of attack? A) Implementing an account lockout policy B) Implementing two-factor authentication C) Regularly patching systems D) Enhancing network monitoring 88 / 90 88. Key escrow is a cryptographic technique that enables storing copies of encryption keys with a trusted third party. A Recovery Agent (RA) is a trusted third party (an individual, entity, or system) who is authorized to assist in the retrieval of encryption keys and data on behalf of the data owner. Key escrow and RA are both used to ensure that encrypted data can be decrypted even if the data owner loses access to their encryption key. Since key escrow and RAs are both components of a single security solution, the only way to implement key escrow systems is with the use of RAs. A) True B) False 89 / 90 89. A company is planning to run a security awareness campaign that focuses on identifying email threats. Which option would be the BEST to include in the campaign to effectively educate employees on recognizing and reporting potential phishing attempts? A) Distributing a monthly newsletter that covers various topics, including a brief section on email security. B) Sending out a company-wide email with a list of tips for identifying phishing emails. C) Conducting tailored phishing exercises with immediate feedback for employees who fall for the simulated attack. D) Hosting a quarterly security seminar that covers a range of security awareness topics, including phishing. 90 / 90 90. An e-commerce website experiences a sudden surge in traffic during a holiday sale, causing the website to slow down and potentially lose sales. Which approach can help increase high availability for the website? A) Using a single server with high computing power B) Implementing a load balancer across multiple servers C) Reducing the number of servers to minimize network congestion D) Storing data on a local disk rather than a cloud-based storage service Your score is The average score is 12% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter 0% Restart quiz Exit